TOEFL Prediction 01 English Corner Scholars Official February 28, 2021 February 28, 2021 Uncategorized TOEFL Prediction 01 English Corner Scholars Official Listening Comprehension Section Audio Answer Sheet /54 TOEFL PredictionListening SectionEnglish CornerScholars OfficialWaktu: 40 menit 1 / 54 Listening ComprehensionThis section tests your ability to comprehend spoken English. It is divided into three parts, each with its own directions. You are not permitted to turn the page during the reading of the directions or to take notes at any time.Part ADirections: Each item in this part consists of a brief conversation involving two speakers. Following each conversation, a third voice will ask a question. You will hear the conversations and questions only once, and they will not be written out.When you have heard each conversation and question, read the four answer choices and select the one-(A), (B), (C), or (D)-that best answers the question based on what is directly stated or on what can be inferred. Then ftll in the space on your answer sheet that matches the letter of the answer that you have selected. Here is an example.You will hear:You will read:(A) Open the window.(B) Move the chair.(C) Leave the room.(D) Take a seat.Sample AnswerFrom the conversation you find out that the woman thinks the man should put the chair over by the window. The best answer to the question, "What does the woman think the man should do?" is (B), "Move the chair." You should fill in (B) on your answer sheet. 2 / 54 1. (A) She doesn't have an appointment. (B) Her problem is complicated. (C) She must live somewhere else. (D) Her apartment isn't far away. 3 / 54 2. (A) She can use his phone if she wants. (B) There's no charge for phone calls. (C) His phone is out of order too. (D) She can call him later if she likes. 4 / 54 3. (A) He couldn't find it. (B) It was too hard to solve. (C) It was simpler than he'd thought. (D) He solved it even though it was hard. 5 / 54 4. (A) He cleaned up after cooking. (B) He forgot to put the pots and pans away. (C) He was out in a terrible storm. (D) He put some plants in the kitchen. 6 / 54 5. (A) He studied forestry in school. (B) He worked in a forest. (C) He read a lot of books about trees. (D) His father taught him. 7 / 54 6. (A) How many pages he must write. (B) What Professor Barclay discussed. (C) How long the class lasted. (D) When the paper is due. 8 / 54 7. (A) She doesn't like any music except classical. (B) There is some classical music she doesn't like. (C) She likes classical music, but she can't play it. (D) Classical music doesn't interest her at all. 9 / 54 8. (A) He was too busy to take it. (B) He did well on it. (C) He left some questions unanswered on it. (D) He took it two times. 10 / 54 9. (A) Breaking the glass. (B) Warming the lid. (C) Hitting the lid. (D) Filling the jar. 11 / 54 10. (A) It was too expensive. (B) She bought it at the shop next door. (C) It was given to her as a gift. (D) She paid very little for it. 12 / 54 11. (A) She doesn't want to discuss the traffic. (B) She didn't have to go downtown today. (C) She was in the traffic herself. (D) She thinks the traffic was better today. 13 / 54 12. (A) The classes aren't interesting. (B) Classes have been canceled. (C) The weather is pleasant. (D) It isn't very sunny today. 14 / 54 13. (A) Gary doesn't need a audio player. (B) She wants her audio player back. (C) She's glad Gary is finally here. (D) Gary can keep her audio player. 15 / 54 14. (A) Stay inside and read it. (B) Look in it for advertisements for umbrellas. (C) Cover her head with it. (D) Throw it away. 16 / 54 15. (A) She originally supported Margaret. (B) She can no longer support Ed. (C) Ed has dropped out of the race. (D) She's not interested in the election. 17 / 54 16. (A) She and her brother painted the apartment. (B) Her brother owes her some money. (C) Her brother painted the apartment by himself. (D) She painted her brother's apartment. 18 / 54 17. (A) Give him a map. (B) Cut his hair for him. (C) Drive him to the lake. (D) Show him another route. 19 / 54 18. (A) Hanging it. (B) Buying it. (C) Painting it. (D) Framing it. 20 / 54 19. (A) Borrow Stephanie's computer. (B) Buy her own computer. (C) Save some money. (D) Stay home and complete her assignment. 21 / 54 20. (A) He doesn't need to practice anymore. (B) His team has won a lot of games. (C) He doesn't want to play volleyball. (D) His.team needs to improve. 22 / 54 21. (A) She seems to be feeling better. (B) She has quite an imagination. (C) She takes beautiful pictures. (D) She's too sick to go out. 23 / 54 22. (A) Lou has been here once before. (B) They'll start when Lou arrives. (C) Lou has already started. (D) Everyone is getting hungry. 24 / 54 23. (A) She thinks they're reasonably priced. (B) She doesn't like them at all. (C) She'd buy them if she had enough money. (D) She doesn't need them, but she still likes them. 25 / 54 24. (A) To improve his game quickly. (B) To take more lessons. (C) To train with a professional. (D) To teach people to play tennis. 26 / 54 25. (A) Wrap the present. (B) Playa game. (C) Point out a problem. (D) End the discussion. 27 / 54 26. (A) He wants to buy some books. (B) Two of the books are the same. (C) He needs some matches. (D) The couple is a good match. 28 / 54 27. (A) Neither street goes downtown. (B) California Street is better than Oak Street. (C) There's not enough time to go downtown. (D) He can take either street. 29 / 54 28. (A) It was hard to hear. (B) It wasn't true. (C) It was surprising. (D) It wasn't very interesting. 30 / 54 29. (A) The handle on the suitcase is broken. (B) His hands are already full. (C) The luggage is too heavy for him. (D) He'll be happy to help. 31 / 54 30. (A) She had to prepare for an exam. (B) She'd passed the physics test. (C) She was going camping. (D) She'd dropped the physics class. 32 / 54 Part BDirections: This part of the test consists of extended conversations between two speakers. After each of these conversations, there are a number of questions. You will hear each conversation and question only once, and the questions are not written out.When you have heard the questions, read the four answer choices and select the one-(A), (B), (C), or (D)-that best answers the question based on what is directly stated or on what can be inferred. Then fIll in the space on your answer sheet that matches the letter of the answer that you have selected.Don't forget: During actual exams, taking notes or writing in your test book is not permitted. 33 / 54 31. (A) They are both studying social anthropology. (B) Both of them are going to the museum on Saturday. (C) They both have the same teacher. (D) Both of them have studied anthropology before. 34 / 54 32. (A) In the morning. (B) In the afternoon. (C) In the evening. (D) Only on Saturdays. 35 / 54 33. (A) Relationships between parents and children. (B) The tools used by ancient people. (C) Leadership in contemporary society. (D) Marriage customs. 36 / 54 34. (A) He found it uninteresting. (B) He found it useful. (C) He found it fascinating. (D) He found it difficult. 37 / 54 35. (A) At a university. (B) At a television station. (C) At a newspaper office. (D) At a hospital. 38 / 54 36. (A) He needs a well-paying position. (B) He was told to by a professor. (C) He wants the experience. (D) He recently lost another job. 39 / 54 37. (A) Drama. (B) Journalism. (C) Telecommunications. (D) History. 40 / 54 38. (A) Talk to Ms. Wagner. (B) Drop a class. (C) Change his major. (D) Complete a form. 41 / 54 Part CDirections: This part of the test consists of several talks, each given by a single speaker. After each of these talks, there are a number of questions. You will hear each talk and question only once, and the questions are not written out. When you have heard each question, read the four answer choices and select the one-(A), (B), (C), or (D)-that best answers the question based on what is directly stated or on what can be inferred. Then fill in the space on your answer sheet that matches the letter of the answer that you have selected.Here is an example.You will hear:Now here is a sample question.You will hear:You will read:(A) Philosophy.(B) Meteorology.(C) Astronomy.(D) Photography.Sample AnswerThe lecture concerns a lunar eclipse, a topic that would typically be discussed in an astronomy class. The choice that best answers the question, "In what course is this lecture probably being given?" is (C), "Astronomy." You should fill in (C) on your answer sheet.Here is an example.You will hear:Sample AnswerYou will read:(A) The Earth's shadow moves across the .\1oon(B) Clouds block the view of the Moon.(C) The Moon moves between the Earth and the Sun.(D) The Sun can be observed without special equipment.From the lecture you learn that a lunar eclipse occurs when the Earth moves between the Sun and the Moon and the shadow of the Earth passes across the Moon. The choice that best answers the question, "According to the speaker, which of the following occurs during a lunar eclipse?" is (A), "The Earth's shadow moves across the Moon."Don't forget: During actual exams, taking notes or writing in your test book is not permitted. 42 / 54 39. (A) A football game. (B) Jet transportation. (C) The Hindenburg disaster. (D) Lighter-than-air craft. 43 / 54 40. (A) Early twentieth century airships. (B) Blimps. (C) Jet aircraft. (D) Modern airships. 44 / 54 41. (A) The age of zeppelins ended in disaster there. (B) It was there that the first blimp was designed. (C) Helium was first substituted for hydrogen there. (D) It was there that the last zeppelin was built. 45 / 54 42. (A) They would be safer. (B) They would use less fuel. (C) They would be faster. (D) They could fly higher. 46 / 54 43. (A) The Uniform Time Act. (B) The role of daylight saving time in wartime. (C) Ways to save energy. (D) The history of daylight saving time. 47 / 54 44. (A) In the spring. (B) In the summer. (C) In the fall. (D) In the winter. 48 / 54 45. (A) As confusing. (B) As innovative. (C) As amusing. (D) As wasteful. 49 / 54 46. (A) To standardize daylight saving time. (B) To establish year-round daylight saving time. (C) To abolish daylight saving time. (D) To shorten daylight saving time. 50 / 54 47. (A) A program the city is starting. (B) The uses of recycled materials. (C) A proposed schedule. (D) A recent newspaper article. 51 / 54 48. (A) Newspapers. (B) Aluminum cans. (C) Plastic bottles. (D) Glass containers. 52 / 54 49. (A) The north. (B) The east. (C) The south. (D) The central. 53 / 54 50. (A) Look in the local newspaper. (B) Keep listening to radio. (C) Stop by the recycling center. (D) Call the radio station. 54 / 54 THIS IS THE END OF SECTION 1, LISTENING COMPREHENSION.STOP WORK ON SECTION 1. Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Structure & Written Expression Section Question & Answer Sheet /43 TOEFL PredictionStructure & Written ExpressionEnglish CornerScholars OfficialWaktu: 25 menit 1 / 43 Structure and Written ExpressionTime: 25 minutesThis section tests your ability to recognize grdmmar and usage suitable for standard writtenEnglish. This section is divided into two parts, each with its own directions.StructureDirections: Items in this part are incomplete sentences. Following each of these sentences, there are four words or phrases. You should select the one word or phrase-(A), (B), CC), or (D)-that best completes the sentence. Then fill in the space on your answer sheet that matches the letter of the answer that you have selected.Example!Pepsin ____ an enzyme used in digestion.(A) that(B) is(C) of(D) beingSample AnswerThis sentence should properly read "Pepsin is an enzyme used in digestion." You should fill in (B) on your answer sheet.Example II____ large natural lakes are found in the state of South Carolina.(A) There are no(B) Not the(C) It is not(D) NoSample AnswerThis sentence should properly read "No large natural lakes are found in the state of SouthCarolina." You should fill in (D) on your answer sheet.As soon as you understand the directions, begin work on this part. 2 / 43 1. _____ team sports require cooperation. (A) Of all (B) They are all (C) All (D) Why are all 3 / 43 2. Anyone who has ever pulled weeds from a garden _____ roots firmly anchor plants to the soil. (A) is well aware of (B) is well aware that (C) well aware (D) well aware that 4 / 43 3. Centuries of erosion have exposed _____ rock surfaces in the Painted Desert of northern Arizona. (A) in colors of the rainbow (B) colored like a rainbow (C) rainbow-colored (D) a rainbow's coloring 5 / 43 4. The higher the temperature of a molecule, _____. (A) the more energy it has (B) than it has more energy (C) more energy has it (D) it has more energy 6 / 43 5. Frontier surgeon Ephraim MacDonald had to perform operations _____ anesthesia. (A) no (B) not having (C) without (D) there wasn't 7 / 43 6. _____ young, chimpanzees are easily trained. (A) When are (B) When (C) They are (D) When they 8 / 43 7. A person of _____ age may suffer from defects of vision. (A) every (B) some (C) certain (D) any 9 / 43 8. _____ have settled, one of their first concerns has been to locate an adequate water supply. (A) Wherever people (B) There are people who (C) Whether people (D) People 10 / 43 9. If a bar magnet is _____, the two pieces form two complete magnets, each with a north and south pole. (A) broken (B) broke (C) breaking (D) break 11 / 43 10. The type of plant and animal life living in and around a pond depends on the soil ofthe pond, _____ , and the pond's location. (A) what the quality of the water is (B) how is the water quality (C) the quality of the water (D) what is the water quality 12 / 43 11. Clifford Holland, _____ civil engineer, was in charge of the construction of the first tunnel under the Hudson River. (A) he was a (B) a (C) being a (D) who, as a 13 / 43 12. _____ parrots are native to tropical regions is untrue. (A) That all (B) All (C) Why all (D) Since all 14 / 43 13. A major concern among archaeologists today is the preservation of archaeological sites, _____ are threatened by development. (A) of which many (B) many of them (C) which many (D) many of which 15 / 43 14. In 1775 Daniel Boone opened the Wilderness Trail and made _____ the first settlements in Kentucky. (A) possibly it was (B) as possible (C) possible (D) it possible 16 / 43 15. Rarely _____ seen far from water. (A) spotted turtles (B) spotted turtles are (C) have spotted turtles (D) are spotted turtles 17 / 43 Written ExpressionDirections: The items in this part have four underlined words or phrases, (A), (B), (C), and (D). You must identify the one underlined expression that must be changed for the sentence to be correct. Then find the number of the question on your answer sheet and fill in the spacecorresponding to the letter.Example ISample AnswerLenses may to have either concave or convex shapes.A B C DThis sentence should read "Lenses may have either concave or convex shapes." You should therefore select answer (A).Example IISample AnswerWhen painting a fresco, an artist is applied paint directly to the damp plaster of a wall.A B C DThis sentence should read "When painting a fresco, an artist applies paint directly to the damp plaster of a wall." You should therefore select answer (B).As soon as you understand the directions, begin work on this section. 18 / 43 16. Ceramics can be harder, light, and more resistant to heat than metals. (A) light (B) resistant (C) heat (D) metals 19 / 43 17. Not everyone realizes that the most largest organ of the human body is the skin. (A) Not everyone (B) that (C) most largest (D) human 20 / 43 18. Mold is extremely destruction to books in a library. (A) extremely (B) destruction (C) books (D) a library 21 / 43 19. Sidney Lanier achieved fame both as a poet or as a symphony musician. (A) achieved (B) as a (C) or (D) musician 22 / 43 20. The horses used play polo are not of any special breed or of any definite size. (A) horses (B) play (C) special (D) definite 23 / 43 21. A tapestry consists of a foundation weave, called the warp, which across are passed different colored threads, called the weft, forming decorative patterns. (A) consists of (B) which across (C) colored (D) patterns 24 / 43 22. The works of early American woodcarvers had many artistic qualities, but these craftsmen probably did not think of them as artists. (A) works (B) many (C) did not (D) them 25 / 43 23. Perhaps mankind's first important musical influence were the songs of birds. (A) first (B) musical (C) were (D) birds 26 / 43 24. The techniques of science and magic are quite different, but their basic aims-to understand and control nature-they are very similar. (A) magic (B) different (C) to understand (D) they are 27 / 43 25. It was in a cave near Magdalena, New Mexico, when the oldest known ears of cultivated corn were discovered. (A) when (B) oldest (C) known (D) discovered 28 / 43 26. The fossil remains of much extinct mammals have been found in the tar pits at Rancho La Brea in Los Angeles. (A) much (B) mammals (C) found (D) in 29 / 43 27. Sharks can detect minute electrical discharges coming from its prey. (A) can detect (B) electrical (C) coming (D) its 30 / 43 28. A dark nebula consists of a cloud of interstellar dust enough dense to obscure the stars beyond it. (A) a cloud of (B) enough dense (C) to obscure (D) beyond 31 / 43 29. Commercially honey is heated and filtered in order to stabilize and clarify it. (A) Commercially (B) filtered (C) stabilize (D) it 32 / 43 30. The various parts of the body require so different surgical skills that many surgical specialties have developed. (A) various (B) so (C) surgical (D) many 33 / 43 31. One reason birds have been so successful is because of their able to escape from danger quickly. (A) have been (B) because of (C) able (D) quickly 34 / 43 32. The wood of the rosewood tree is used to do fine musical instruments. (A) wood (B) is used (C) do (D) musical 35 / 43 33. Chemical engineering is based on the principles of physics, chemists, and mathematics. (A) on (B) principles (C) chemists (D) mathematics 36 / 43 34. Ballet performers must be believable actors and actresses as well as experts dancers. (A) must be (B) actors (C) as well (D) experts 37 / 43 35. Venus, the second planet from the Sun, is exactly almost the same size as the Earth. (A) the second (B) from (C) exactly almost (D) size as 38 / 43 36. P. T. Barnum opened his own circus in 1871 and become the most famous showman of his time. (A) his own (B) become (C) most famous (D) time 39 / 43 37. The way a child plays with other children reveals a lots about the child's emotional development. (A) plays with (B) a lots (C) the child's (D) development 40 / 43 38. Sheep have been domesticated for over 5,000 years ago. (A) have been (B) domesticated (C) over (D) years ago 41 / 43 39. Chemical compounds with barium, cobalt, and strontium are responsible to many of the vivid colors in fireworks. (A) with (B) are (C) to (D) colors 42 / 43 40. Duke University in North Carolina has an outstanding collecting of documents concerning Southern history. (A) has (B) collecting (C) concerning (D) history 43 / 43 THIS IS THE END OF SECTION 2.IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, CHECK YOUR WORK ON SECTION 2 ONLY.DO NOT READ OR WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION OF THE TEST. Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Reading Comprehension Section Text, Question & Answer Sheet /51 TOEFL PredictionReading ComprehensionEnglish CornerScholars OfficialWaktu: 55 menit 1 / 51 1. What is the primary purpose of this passage? (A) To alert people to the dangers posed by the Sun (B) To discuss conditions on Earth in the far future (C) To present a theory about red giant stars (D) To describe changes that the Sun will go through 2 / 51 2. The word "fueled" in line 1 is closest in meaning to (A) powered (B) bombarded (C) created (D) propelled 3 / 51 3. The word "state" in line 3 is closest in meaning to (A) shape (B) condition (C) location (D) size 4 / 51 4. It can be inferred from the passage that the Sun (A) is approximately halfway through its life as a yellow dwarf (B) has been in existence for 10 billion years (C) is rapidly changing in size and brightness (D) will continue as a yellow dwarf for another 10 billion years 5 / 51 5. What will probably be the first stage of change as the Sun becomes a red giant? (A) Its core will cool off and use less fuel. (B) Its surface will become hotter and shrink. (C) It will throw off huge amounts of gases. (D) Its center will grow smaller and hotter. 6 / 51 6. When the Sun becomes a red giant, what will conditions be like on Earth? (A) Its atmosphere will freeze and become solid. (B) It will be enveloped in the expanding surface of the Sun. (C) It will become too hot for life to exist. (D) It will be nearly destroyed by nova explosions. 7 / 51 7. As a white dwarf, the Sun will be (A) the same size as the planet Mercury (B) thousands of times smaller than it is today (C) around 35 million miles in diameter (D) cold and dark 8 / 51 8. According to the passage, which of the following best describes the sequence of stages that the Sun will probably pass through? (A) Yellow dwarf, white dwarf, red giant, black giant (B) Red giant, white dwarf, red dwarf, nova explosion (C) Yellow dwarf, red giant, white dwarf, black dwarf (D) White dwarf, red giant, black dwarf, yellow dwarf 9 / 51 9. The phrase "throw off" in line 17 is closest in meaning to (A) eject (B) burn up (C) convert (D) let in 10 / 51 10. The word "there" in line 23 refers to (A) our own planet (B) the outer surface of the Sun (C) the core of a black dwarf (D) the planet Mercury 11 / 51 11. Which of the following best describes the tone of the passage? (A) Alarmed (B) Pessimistic (C) Comic (D) Objective 12 / 51 12. Why does the author most likely mention George Washington in the first paragraph? (A) He was President at the time the Erie Canal was built. (B) He was involved in pioneering efforts to build canals. (C) He successfully opened the first canal in the United States. (D) He commissioned engineers to study the possibility of building the Erie Canal. 13 / 51 13. The word "feasibility" in line 6 is closest in meaning to (A) profitability (B) difficulty (C) possibility (D) capability 14 / 51 14. According to the passage, the Erie Canal connected the (A) Potomac and Ohio rivers (B) Hudson River and Lake Erie (C) Delaware and Potomac rivers (D) Atlantic Ocean and the Hudson River 15 / 51 15. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word "comparatively" in line 17? (A) Relatively (B) Contrarily (C) Incredibly (D) Considerably 16 / 51 16. The phrase "on-again-off-again" in line 20 could be replaced by which of the following with the least change in meaning? (A) Intermittent (B) Unsolicited (C) Ineffectual (D) Gradual 17 / 51 17. The completion of the Erie Canal was financed by (A) the state of New York (B) private companies (C) the federal government (D) DeWitt Clinton 18 / 51 18. The actual cost of building the Erie Canal was (A) five million dollars (B) less than had been estimated (C) seven million dollars (D) more than could be repaid 19 / 51 19. The word "tolls" in line 26 is closest in meaning to which of the following? (A) Jobs (B) Grants (C) Links (D) Fees 20 / 51 20. Which of the following is NOT given in the fourth paragraph as an effect of the building of the Erie Canal? (A) It allowed the East Coast to trade with the Great Lakes area. (B) It took water traffic away from the Mississippi River. (C) It helped determine the outcome of the Civil War. (D) It established Boston and Philadelphia as the most important centers of trade. 21 / 51 21. What can be inferred about railroads in 1849 from the information in the last paragraph? (A) They were being planned but had not yet been built. (B) They were seriously underdeveloped. (C) They had begun to compete with the Erie Canal for traffic. (D) They were weakened by the expansion of the canal. 22 / 51 22. The word "warranted" in line 35 is closest in meaning to (A) guaranteed (B) justified (C) hastened (D) prevented 23 / 51 23. At what point in the passage does the author focus on the beginning of construction of the Erie Canal? (A) Lines 3-5 (B) Lines 10-13 (C) Lines 16-18 (D) Lines 25-26 24 / 51 24. Which of the following is the main topic of the passage? (A) The vibrations produced by insects (B) The mission of the U.S. Forest Service (C) The effect of insects on trees (D) The sounds made by distressed trees 25 / 51 25. The word "them" in line 4 refers to (A) trees (B) scientists (C) insects (D) cries 26 / 51 26. The word "parched" in line 6 is closest in meaning to which of the following? (A) Burned (B) Dehydrated (C) Recovered (D) Fallen 27 / 51 27, The word "plight" in line 8 is closest in meaning to (A) signal (B) condition (C) need (D) agony 28 / 51 28. It can be inferred from the passage that the sounds produced by the trees (A) serve as a form of communication with other trees (B) are the same no matter what type of tree produces them (C) cannot be heard by the unaided human ear (D) fall into the 1-20 kilohertz range 29 / 51 29, The word "fractured" in line 15 is closest in meaning to (A) long (B) blocked (C) hollow (D) broken 30 / 51 30. Which of the following could be considered a cause of the trees' distress signals? (A) Torn roots (B) Attacks by insects (C) Experiments by scientists (D) Lack of water 31 / 51 31. In line 17, the phrase "pick up" could best be replaced by which of the following? (A) Perceive (B) Lift (C) Transmit (D) Attack 32 / 51 32. All of the following are mentioned as possible factors in drawing insects to weakened trees, EXCEPT (A) thermal changes (B) smells (C) sounds (D) changes in color 33 / 51 33. It can be inferred that, at the time the passage was written, research concerning the distress signals of trees (A) had been conducted many years earlier (B) had been unproductive up to then (C) was continuing (D) was no longer sponsored by the government 34 / 51 34. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage? (A) A contrast is drawn between two concepts by means of examples. (B) A general concept is introduced, examples are given, and a conclusion is offered. (C) Two definitions of the same concept are compared. (D) Two proposals are suggested and support for both is offered. 35 / 51 35. According to the passage, the concepts of analogy and homology are (A) difficult to understand (B) easier to understand through examples than through definitions (C) impossible to explain (D) simple to define but hard to apply 36 / 51 36. The word "rigid" in line 4 is closest in meaning to (A) inflexible (B) ideal (C) unnatural (D) steep 37 / 51 37. According to the information provided in the passage, which of the following would most probably be considered analogous? (A) A shark's fin and a tiger's claws (B) A man's arms and a bird's wings (C) A monkey's tail and an elephant's tail (D) A spider's legs and a horse's legs 38 / 51 38. According to the passage, one way in which homologous organs differ from analogous organs is that they (A) are genetically related (B) are only found in highly developed animals (C) perform the same general functions (D) come from different embryological structures 39 / 51 39. As used throughout the passage, the term "structures" most nearly means (A) buildings (B) features of an animal's anatomy (C) organizational principles (D) units of grammar 40 / 51 40. The word "sense" in line 13 is closest in meaning to (A) feeling (B) logic (C) meaning (D) perception 41 / 51 41. Where in the passage does the author first focus his discussion on the concept of homology? (A) Lines 2-4 (B) Lines 6-8 (C) Lines 9-1 1 (D) Lines 13-14 42 / 51 42. The author's main purpose in writing this passage is to (A) criticize the factory system of the 1930's (B) analyze an important film (C) explain Chaplin's style of acting (D) discuss how film reveals the benefits of technology 43 / 51 43. According to the passage, Chaplin got the idea for the film Modern Times from (A) a newspaper article (B) a scene in a movie (C) a job he had once held (D) a conversation with a reporter 44 / 51 44. The word "abruptly" in line 10 is closest in meaning to (A) suddenly (B) mysteriously (C) finally (D) predictably 45 / 51 45. It can be inferred from the passage that two-thirds of the film Modern Times (A) is completely unforgettable (B) takes place outside a factory (C) is more critical than the other third (D) entertains the audience more than the other third 46 / 51 46. Which of the following could best replace the phrase "losing his mind" in lines 19-20? (A) Getting fired (B) Doing his job (C) Going insane (D) Falling behind 47 / 51 47. The word "This" in line 24 refers to which of the following? (A) The machine (B) The food (C) The assembly line (D) The scenent film 48 / 51 48. According to the passage, the purpose of the scene involving the feeding machine is to show people's (A) ingenuity (B) adaptability (C) helplessness (D) independence 49 / 51 49. The word "utter" in line 25 is closest in meaning to which of the following? (A) Notable (B) Complete (C) Regrettable (D) Necessary 50 / 51 50. The author would probably be LEAST likely to use which of the following words to describe the film Modern Times? (A) Revolutionary (B) Entertaining (C) Memorable (D) Satirical 51 / 51 THIS IS THE END OF THE SAMPLE READING COMPREHENSION SECTION.IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED,GO BACK AND CHECK YOUR WORK IN THIS SECTION ONLY. Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Post navigation Informal Letter: Pengertian, Struktur, dan Langkah-langkah Menulis Surat Tidak Resmi dalam Bahasa InggrisTryout UBTK Soshum Learning Hub Scholars Official Leave a Reply Cancel replyYour email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *Comment Name * Email * Website Save my name, email, and website in this browser for the next time I comment.